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Ethics

: Legal Ethics Forum

Non-Written Consents to Conflicts?

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I've been reviewing the new Illinois rules of professional conduct, and I noticed that they do not require a client's consent to a conflict to be in writing.  See, e.g., Rule 1.7(b)(4).  (The previous version of Illinois Rule 1.7 also did not explicitly require written consent.)

The absence of a writing requirement struck me as odd.  Can anyone offer a good explanation for why non-written consents should be permissible?

Full post as published by Legal Ethics Forum on July 06, 2009 (boomark / email).

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